Any American who fails to provide their bona fides on election day is denied the ability to vote. Not the RIGHT to vote. There is NO SUCH UNCONDITIONAL right anywhere.

The statists have worked diligently in the recent decade to do two things–

1. make voter fraud measurably easier, extend the franchise to reliably Dimocrat voters (felons among others), and steal close elections by hook or crook; and

2. disenfranchise American military personnel serving overseas.

Holder’s DOJ may not simply say that a process designed to prevent illegal voting falls disparately on racial groups. He has to provide some EVIDENCE that is the case. Further, there is a “balancing test”, putting the legitimate interest of the state to have a valid, legal election against the supposed discriminatory effect of the measures the state erects.

Yes, in Holder’s view, and in the view of many civil servants in the DOJ, the previous administration made agreements with state governments that violate the VRA.

Like what?

It’s the plain language of the VRA

Ok, so I went and read the VRA. Section two lays out the basics of the law and it’s purpose:

No voting qualification or prerequisite to voting, or standard, practice, or procedure shall be imposed or applied by any State or political subdivision to deny or abridge the right of any citizen of the United States to vote on account of race or color.

Nowhere in the VRA does it say that the law is to ensure mistakes aren’t made. Throughout the text, the law is clear that it’s purpose is to stop the discriminatory practices used by certain places to prevent minorities from voting. The word or variations of the word “possibility” is not used. You can read it ’till your eyes bleed, you won’t find that it covers or protects against a “possibility” of the type you argue.

The emphasis of the VRA is also on the fact that U.S. Citizens must not be discriminated against in being allowed to vote. How does one determine Citizenship without proof?

The VRA is clearly being used, in this instance, to step on States’ rights and, in my opinion, is also being used solely and blatantly in order to gain political advantage. The Federal government is using a 40 year old law to assist one party in winning elections where it couldn’t otherwise.

Since the District Court in DC had already given the preclearance required by the VRA and the lack of any further cause for action, the corruption here is obvious.

LGM,

Your argument is invalid.

Is there, in fact, any right for anyone in Georgia to vote in a Federal election?

Does anyone, anywhere, have a right to vote in a Federal election?